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Q&A Home > S > Slavery How can we explain the bottom verse to non-Christians (or for our own understanding)? It seems as if it is clearly saying it is okay to beat servants.
Exodus 21:20-21
“And if a man beats his male or female servant with a rod, so that he dies under his hand, he shall surely be punished. Notwithstanding, if he remains alive a day or two, he shall not be punished; for he is his property.”
Forced slavery was considered unacceptable in the Old Testament and in the New Testament. Because of poverty, some Hebrews sold themselves or their children into slavery. The Holy Scripture cautions those who are in the role of authority to be fair and just. Servants were to be treated well, just as hired workers. In those times, the form of discipline was physical, but not intended to be brutal. If a servant was disciplined in a severe manner and died at the hands of the master, that master would be punished for inflicting a fatal blow. However, if the servant died at a later time, it could be for reasons other than the discipline caused the death, and thus, that master would not be punished.
The Holy Scripture:
Kindness to Slaves:
Leviticus 25:43
Two Classes of Slaves--Hebrews & Gentiles:
Exodus 21:7; 26-27
Leviticus 25:10; 39-41
Deuteronomy 15:12-14; 15-17; 19:21; 23:15-16
From Adam Clark Commentary:
But if he survived the beating a day or two the master was not punished, because it might be presumed that the man died through some other cause. And all penal laws should be construed as favorably as possible to the accused.
http://www.godrules.net/library/clarke/clarkeexo21.htm
From Barnes Notes:
The protection here afforded to the life of a slave may seem to us but a slight one; but it is the very earliest trace of such protection in legislation, and it stands in strong and favorable contrast with the old laws of Greece, Rome, and other nations. If the slave survived the castigation a day or two, the master did not become amenable to the law, because the loss of the slave was accounted, under the circumstances, as a punishment.
Reference:
http://biblehub.com/commentaries/exodus/21-21.htm
Is a slave property?
Exodus 21:20-21"And if a man strikes his male or female slave with a rod and he dies at his hand, he shall be punished. 21If, however, he survives a day or two, no vengeance shall be taken; for he is his property."
God permitted slavery to exist in both Old and New Testament times. But this does not mean that slavery was a God-ordained system. Slavery was an invention of the fallen mannot of God. Nevertheless, God allowed it to exist the way He allows other things to exist that He does not approve of: murder, lying, rape, theft, etc.
God also works within the system of the fallen man and makes allowances for the freedom and failures of mankind within that system. We see this, for example, in Jesus saying that God allowed divorce because of the hardness of the peoples' hearts (Matthew 19:8). The fact is, people are sinners and do things contrary to the will of God. But, even though people have murdered, lied, raped, and stolen, God has still used people who have committed these sins to accomplish His divine will. Moses murdered an Egyptian but this was used by God to deliver Israel. David committed adultery but was promised to have the Messiah descend from his seed. This is proof that though God desires that people not do much of what they do. He permits them their freedom yet uses the system and the people according to His divine will.
In the case of a slave being property, that is simply the way things were done back then. God worked within the fallen system of man and put limits and guidelines concerning the treatment of slaves.
Refernce:
https://carm.org/bible-difficulties/genesis-deuteronomy/slave-property
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