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If our Lord has conquered death and ascended to His Glory in heaven, and is one with the Father why does He become subjected again? I do not seem to understand verse 28 in the Holy Book of I Corinthians 15, "When he has done this, then the Son Himself will be made subject to Him who put everything under Him, so that God may be all in all."

The subjection of our Lord Jesus Christ to the Father represents  every creature  subjection  to our Lord Jesus Christ, who in turn is voluntarily subject to the Father. However, Our Lord Jesus Christ's subjection to the Father is not the same as our subjection to the Son, because our subjection is one of dependence and not union of equals. So the subjection of our Lord Jesus Christ to the Father is our subjection to the Father in the Son. As Origen said, "As long as I am not subjected to the Father, neither is the Son said to be 'subjected' to the Father. Not that the Son Himself is in need of subjection before the Father, but for me, in whom He has not yet completed His work, the Son is said not to be subjected, for 'we are the body of Christ and members in part.'" Also Origen said, "the subjection of Christ to the Father reveals the blessedness of our spiritual maturity."

When the scriptures say that the Son is less than the Father, they refer to His assumption of humanity. But when they point out that He is equal, they refer to His deity (St. Augustine & St. Gregory Nazianzen). St. Paul is thinking of the Divine dispensation of the incarnation when he says that the Son, who is fully God, has willingly subjected Himself to the Father (St. John Chrysostom). It is also important to emphasize that Christ does not cease to reign when he has put all His enemies under His feet (St. Gregory Nazianzen & St. Cyril of Jerusalem).