> Immaculate Conception
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If both the immaculate birth of St. Mary and the Assumption of her body are not biblically documented, why does our Church, unlike the Catholic Church, believe in the second and reject the first?
If in the general sense, Christ's death was necessary, this does not rule out that He can apply the merit of that death as He wills. As it is His death, and He is almighty, He can do what He wills. He can exempt His mother from the consequence of Adam’s sin. God is both perfectly just and perfectly merciful.
In the matter of the Immaculate Conception, I cannot agree with your statement that by protecting His mother from original sin our Lord belittled His cross. Is not God omnipotent and free to love His own mother above all others?
Is Your Grace familiar with Duns Scotus' explanation of the Immaculate Conception?
I'm a Catholic, enquiring as to the official stance of the Oriental Orthodox Church on Mary's sinlessness. I It appears that you believe that the Theotokos was conceived with original sin. Do you believe that she ever really committed actual sin, or was she preserved from these? Furthermore, what do you think of the thoughts expressed in the following link: http://www.east2west.org/discus/messages/10/47.html?1025118443. It's by an Eastern Catholic (of the Byzantine Catholic Church of America) who thinks that our supposed differences on this issue are more semantic than anything else. Is this reconcilable with Oriental Orthodoxy?
We believe in the Immaculate Conception of the Virgin Mary? Does the Coptic Church share this view as well?
What are the sources, whether oral or written, that prove the Assumption of the Virgin Mary’s body?
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