Coptic Orthodox Diocese of the Southern United States
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What does our Lord Jesus mean in the Holy Gospel of St. John 10:30, 14:20,17:11,21-23 and 14:20, 17:21?

How do we know that this is a claim to divinity and not a misunderstanding of the Jews i.e. how do we know that the Jews didn't just misunderstand Him when He said this? How do we know that He was really claiming to be God here?

Our Lord Jesus Christ was not claiming to be God; He is in fact God. He is one with the Father. This was not a misinterpretation of the Jews but a clear statement from Jesus Christ. Notice that in Jn 14:20; Jn 17:10-21 our Lord was talking to His own disciples not to the Jews.

Repeating the same sentence at different occasions is a proof that our Lord wanted to emphasize  the truth that He and the Father are one. This is His own teaching to the disciples and this is the message that He wanted them to understand and to preach to the whole world.

His unity with the Father is different than our unity with Him since His unity with the Father is a natural one but our unity with Him is through His grace.
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