There are 2 questions in this category.
There must be a deeper meaning to the Lord's flipping over of the tables driving the people out of His house and beating them with whips. Otherwise "
the wrath of man does not produce the righteousness of God
" (James 1:20) could be applied to His act. Could Your Grace elaborate?
When it says "Let every man be swift to hear, slow to speak, and slow to wrath" does it mean wrath is acceptable? Please explain.
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